UPSC Prelims Polity Question Paper (2011-2026)

Contents

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2026

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

a) Esprit de corps

b) Equity

c) Accountability

d) Delegation

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform—including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives—to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project—a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. X explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

a) X is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

b) The view of Y that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.

c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.

d) The view of only Y is correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

a) All three statements are correct.

b) There is no correct statement.

c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.

d) There is only one correct statement.

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains: built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 1 only

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

b) All three statements are correct.

c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.

d) There is no correct statement.

e) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

a) All the three statements are correct.

b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

c) There is only one correct statement.

d) There is no correct statement.

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

a) There is only one correct statement.

b) There are four correct statements.

c) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

d) There is no correct statement.

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 only

62) Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below :

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 2 only

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

The period of implementation is from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026.
The key objective is to enhance Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on Sustainable Development Goals.
The share of Central funding is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 3

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3

d) 2 and 3

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2025

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information :

	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I.	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II.	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III.	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(C) I and III only

(D) I, II and III

With reference to India, consider the following :
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(D) None

Consider the following statements :
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Consider the following pairs :

Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Only one

(B) Only two

(C) All the three

(D) None

Consider the following statements :

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,

I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. embers of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements :
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(C) I and III only

(D) I, II and III

Consider the following statements :
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements :

Statement I :

In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II :

In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Consider the following statements :
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) III only

(B) II and III

(D) None of the above statements is correct

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) II and IV only

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I and III only

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2024

How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operations Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition
Variation
Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy

Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:

He/She shall not preside
He/She shall not have the right to speak
He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2023

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(c) Fair application of law

(d) Equality before law

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Consider the following statements :

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament Money the following statements :

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action : Act under which it is covered

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire that endanger personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2022

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2021

Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.

(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements.
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates

(a) The right to equality

(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) the Concept of Welfare

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(d) Neither fundamental Right nor legal right.

Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards.

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(a) A democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Constitutional government means.

(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure

(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Which one of the following best defines the term “State”?

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.

(C) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.

(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.

With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

(a) A committed judiciary

(b) Centralization of powers

(d) Separation of powers.

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2020

Which part of the constitution of India declares the ideals of welfare state?

(a) Directive Principles of State policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh schedule

In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for Bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope for parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

The preamble to the constitution of India is

(a) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect

(b) Not a part of the constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) A part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other part.

With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the Constitution of India, Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by the courts
2. They shall not be enforceable by any courts
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.

Select the correct answer using the given code below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

With reference to the funds under Member of Parliament Local Area Development(MPLADS)Scheme, which of the following statements are correct?

MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education etc.
A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
MPLADS funds are sanctioned on an annual basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Which of the following categories of Fundamental Rights Incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against exploitation

(b) Right to freedom

(d) Right to equality

In India, separation of judiciary from executive is enjoined by

(a) The preamble of the constitution

(b) The directive principles of state policy

(d) The conventional practice

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

(a) The final goal of a stateless society

(b) Class struggle

(d) Economic determinism

Other than the fundamental rights , Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal declaration of human rights(1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive principles of state policy
3. Fundamental duties

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

In India, legal service authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs2,00,000
Member of other backward classes(OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs 3,00,000
All senior citizens

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Consider the following statements
1. According to Constitution of India, A person who eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state
2. According to the representation of people act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for at least five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements:
1. The president of India can summon a session of parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The constitution of India provides for three sessions of the parliament in a year but it is not mandatory to conduct all the sessions
3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

A parliamentary system of government is one which

(a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government

(b) The government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) Government by legislature

(b) Popular government

(d) Limited government

Rajyasabha has equal power with Loksabha in

(a) The matter of creating new all India services

(b) Amending the constitution

(d) Making cut motions

Along with the budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement” The aforesaid document is presented because this mandated by

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and article 110(1) of the constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management act, 2003

Consider the following statements
1. The constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy
2. The constitution of India provides for the ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements
1. Aadhar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
3. Aadhar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the consolidated fund of India

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Polity – UPSC Prelim – GS – Question Paper

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UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2025

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2024

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2023

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2022

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2021

UPSC Prelim GS Question Paper – 2020

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