Centre, State & Local Government – Indian Polity – WBCS Main Question Paper

parliament question for psc exam

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2022

7. Power of the President to consult Supreme Court has been stated under

(A) Article 144

(B) Article 142

(C) Article 143

(D) Article 141

8. Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in union/state/concurrent list?

(A) State Legislature exclusively

(B) Parliament alone

(C) Parliament after consultation with state legislatures

(D) Parliament or state legislature as adjudicated by the Supreme Court of India

10. The President can issue proclamation of emergency

(A) on the advice of the Prime Minister

(B) on the advice of Council of Ministers

(C) on the request of the Vice-President

(D) when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation is communicated to the President in writing

13. A Money Bill can originate

(A) Only in the Lok Sabha

(B) Only in the Rajya Sabha

(C) In both the Houses simultaneously

(D) At the joint session of both the Houses

25. Which one of the following items/subjects belongs to the Concurrent List of the VIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Public Health and Sanitation

(B) Forests

(C) Stock Exchanges

(D) Agriculture

27. How soon imposition of National Emergency should be approved by the Parliament?

(A) 1 month

(B) 2 months

(C) 3 months

(D) 6 months

29. “Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefore” is laid down in the

Constitution in—

(A) Part XX

(B) Part XXI

(C) Part XXII

(D) Part XXIII

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31. Disqualification of membership of either House of the Parliament is provided under

(A) Article 100

(B) Article 101

(C) Article 102

(D) Article 103

32. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?

(A) President

(B) Speaker

(C) Vice-president

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

35. The Parliament of India consists of

(A) President, House of the People and Council of States

(B) House of the People and Council of States

(C) Vice-President, House of the People and Council of States

(D) President, Vice-President, House of the People and Council of States

36. The maximum age prescribed for election of President in India is

(A) 35 years

(B) 60 years

(C) 65 years

(D) No such limit

41. The number of nominated members to the Council of States is

(A) 18

(B) 12

(C) 20

(D) 16

43. Which Indian State has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

44. Minimum age required to become a member of Council of States is

(A) 18 years

(B) 25 years

(C) 30 years

(D) 35 years

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45. Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is provided in the Constitution of India under

(A) Article 101

(B) Article 108

(C) Article 133

(D) Article 102

47. How many times have the Financial Emergency imposed in India?

(A) Only once

(B) Twice

(C) Thrice

(D) Never

51. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to

(A) Judiciary

(B) House of the People

(C) Council of States

(D) The President

55. Which of the following is a part of the electoral college for the Election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) State Legislative Assemblies

(D) State Legislative Councils

56. Which of the following Indian States does not have a Bicameral Legislature?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(C) Chhattisgarh

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

58. The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

59. Who has the right to decide that who will be included in the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?

(A) Parliament

(B) President

(C) Governor of the State

(D) Supreme Court

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65. Which of the following Article deals with the election of the Vice-President?

(A) 62

(B) 64

(C) 66

(D) 68

67. The Council of States in India has how many elected members?

(A) 250

(B) 238

(C) 245

(D) 230

75. The resolution to remove the Vice-President of India can be moved by

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Any State Legislature

(D) Either House of the Parliament

80. With reference to election of the President under Article 55 of the Constitution of India, every elected member of the legislative assembly shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by

(A) Total number of the elected members of the assembly

(B) Total number of nominated members of the Rajya Sabha

(C) Total number of the elected members of both the Houses

(D) None of the above

81. The maximum number of seats for Lok Sabha may go up to

(A) 542

(B) 545

(C) 552

(D) 567

83. Under which Article of the Constitution of India Financial Emergency can be proclaimed?

(A) Article 323

(B) Article 356

(C) Article 352

(D) Article 360

89. If the announcement of National Emergency has been approved by both Houses of parliament, how long will it be effective?

(A) 1 month

(B) 2 months

(C) 3 months

(D) 6 months

91. A proposal to prefer the charge of impeachment of the President of India has to be moved after prior notice of

(A) 7 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 21 days

(D) 30 days

96. Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with “Emergency Provisions”?

(A) Part IX

(B) Part XVIII

(C) Part XXII

(D) Part XVI

100. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments equipped President to impose National

Emergency on any particular part of India?

(A) 38th Amendment

(B) 40th Amendment

(C) 42nd Amendment

(D) 62nd Amendment

195. The system of Panchayati Raj involves

(A) Village, State and Union levels

(B) Village, District and State levels

(C) Village and State levels

(D) Village, Block and District levels

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WBCS Main Question Paper – 2021

5. India is a Republic in the sense that

(A) it has an elected Head of the state

(B) parliamentary form of government

(C) it has an elected government

(D) it has a Prime Minister

6. Fill in the blank.

    Article _______ pertains to the amendment of the Constitution of India.

(A) 365

(B) 372

(C) 368

(D) 268

9. Who was the First Deputy Prime Minister of India?

(A) V. R. Gill

(B) R. N. Shukla

(C) Chaudhary Devi Lal

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

14. The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution is related to

(A) provisions for administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

(B) provisions regarding disqualification on ground of defection.

(C) provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.

(D) provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

16. Which Commission has examined the Centre-State relations?

(A) Sarkaria Commission

(B) Sri Krishna Commission

(C) Rajamannar Commission

(D) Kher Commission

19. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule promulgated in any state in India?

(A) Article 326

(B) Article 370

(C) Article 380

(D) Article 356

27. Financial Emergency is contained in Article

(A) 352

(B) 360

(C) 356

(D) All of the above

30. Public Accounts Committee has Members from

(A) House of the People

(B) Council of States only

(C) State Legislatures

(D) Both Houses of Parliament

32. Which of the Lists are in the Constitution of India?

(A) State List

(B) Union List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) All of the above

38. Which Committee made recommendations for local Self Government?

(A) Kothari Commission

(B) Sarkaria Commission

(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(D) Venkatachaliah Commission

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40. Prorogation of the House means Mode

(A) The House has been brought into Session

(B) The House itself stands terminated

(C) The Session of the House has been terminated

(D) None of the above

41. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor?

(Article 153-162)

(A) 30 years

(B) 40 years

(C) 35 years

(D) 45 years

44. Which Article relates to the Panchayati Raj in India?

(A) Article 243

(B) Article 245

(C) Article 242

(D) Article 244

45. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to ______.

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Legislative Assembly

(D) Governor

54. Which Schedule contains the Union List?

(A) Fourth Schedule

(B) Fifth Schedule

(C) Seventh Schedule

(D) None of the above

75. Who is the Legal Advisor of the Government of a State in India?

(Article 165)

(A) The Advocate General

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) Judges of Supreme Court

(D) Vice-President

76. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is

(A) elected by Members of Parliament.

(B) Prime Minister.

(C) elected by majority party in the Lok Sabha.

(D) None of the above

87. Which Article was given effect to by the 73rd Amendment?

(A) Article 47

(B) Article 40

(C) Article 45

(D) Article 46

90. The Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it enjoys the support of the ________.

(Article 74)

(A) Minority of Members of the Upper House of Parliament

(B) Majority of the Members of the Upper House of Parliament

(C) Minority of the Members of the Lower House

(D) Majority of the Members of the Lower House of Parliament

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91. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution prescribes the distribution of seats in Rajya Sabha?

(A) 10th Schedule

(B) 4th Schedule

(C) 8th Schedule

(D) 2nd Schedule

94. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?

(A) Either House of Parliament

(B) Any Vidhan Sabha

(C) Only Lok Sabha

(D) Only Rajya Sabha

106. Service tax is not levied in which of the states?

(A) Nagaland

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Mizoram

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

(wrong question)

111. The power of ‘amnesty’ in India is given to the

(an official pardon for people)

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Chief Minister

(D) Parliament

115. Who administers Oath to the Governor of a State?

(Article 159)

(A) President

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) Chief Justice of High Court

(D) Vice-President

116. Who does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?

(A) Elected Members of Lok Sabha

(B) Elected Members of Legislative Assembly of each State

(C) Elected Members of Legislative Council

(D) Elected Members of Rajya Sabha

122. The Union Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to

[Article 75(3)]

(A) Judiciary

(B) House of the People

(C) Council of States

(D) The President

139. The Members of the Council of States in India are elected for a period of

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years

(D) Lifetime

148. Money Bill is given under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 110

(B) Article 210

(C) Article 101

(D) Article 201

153. Who acts as the President of India in the absence of both the President and Vice-President?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General

(C) Cabinet Secretary

(D) Chief Justice of India

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157. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is

(A) 220

(B) 250

(C) 230

(D) 240

167. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?

(A) Chief of the Army

(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C) Chief Justice of India

(D) Chief of the Air force

174. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution relates to

(A) Centre-State relations

(B) Supreme Court jurisdiction

(C) State Emergency

(D) National Emergency

179. The President of India has almost the same Constitutional authority as the

(A) President of USA

(B) British Monarch

(C) President of Russia

(D) President of China

183. What is the term of a Vice-President of India?

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 65 years

(D) 6 years

185. Who promulgates ordinance in the States of India?

(Article 213)

(A) Governor

(B) Chief Minister

(C) President

(D) Chief Justice

188. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister?

(A) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in Lok Sabha

(B) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved

(C) Under all circumstances the President faces

(D) Under no circumstances

189. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Chief Justice of India

(D) Union Cabinet

191. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill for

(A) Indefinite period

(B) 6 months

(C) 30 days

(D) 14 days

192. Article 80 deals with

(A) composition of Lok Sabha

(B) composition of Rajya Sabha

(C) composition of State Legislative Assembly

(D) composition of State Legislative Council

195. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

(A) President

(B) Vice-President

(C) Prime Minister

(D) None of the above

196. What is the Council of States known in India?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Parliament 

(C) Rajya Sabha

(D) Vidhan Sabha

197. The Indian Budget includes

(A) revised estimates for the current year.

(B) budget estimates for the following year.

(C) actual figures of the preceding year.

(D) All of the above

198. Our financial system has provided for the transfer of resources from the centre to the states; the important means of resource transfer are

(A) tax sharing

(B) grant-in aids

(C) loans

(D) All of the above

200. Who appoints the Governor of a State?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) The President of India

(C) Vice-President

(D) Chief Minister

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WBCS Main Question Paper – 2020

6. Who is a Pro-tem Speaker in the Lok Sabha ?

(A) The first meeting after the general election in which the Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha, is held under the senior most member of Parliament is commonly known as Pro-tem Speaker.

(B) A temporary Speaker elected by the House when the Speaker has taken a leave of absence.

(C) The Speaker elected by the House when both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are absent.

(D) The Speaker who presides over a joint session of Parliament.

7. Fill in the blank :

    The office of the President of India can fall vacant ______ .

(A) in case of death of a President

(B) if a President resigns from his post

(C) on the commencement of impeachment in the Lok Sabha

(D) Only (A) and (B)

8. Who is the highest law officer in the States of India under Article 165 ?

(A) Secretary General of the State

(B) Advocate General

(C) Chief Justice of the State High Court

(D) The Governor of the State

9. What are the qualifications for election as President of India ? Choose the correct answer:

(A) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —

     (a) He is a citizen of India,

     (b) He has completed the age of thirty five,

     (c) He is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

(B) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —

     (a) He is a citizen of India.

     (b) He has completed the age of thirty years.

     (c) He is a member of the Lok Sabha.

(C) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —-

     (a) He is a citizen of India.

     (b) He has completed the age of forty years.

     (c) Unless he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or under the Government of the states.

(D) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless —

     (a) He is a citizen of India.

     (b) He has completed thirty five years of age.

     (c) He is qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha.

12. How many members are nominated by the President of India to the Rajya Sabha ?

(A) 20      

(B) 18      

(C) 15      

(D) 12

13. Which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that there shall be an Attorney General of India ?

(A) Article 78       

(B) Article 76     

(C) Article 67      

(D) Article 113

15. Which Article in the Indian Constitution contains provisions dealing with a Money Bill ?

(A) Article 100      

(B) Article 110     

(C) Article 122     

(D) Article 125

16. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 has introduced

(A) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States, having population of over 20 lakh.

(B) a federal form of Government.

(C) the term ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.

(D) reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian Community in the Parliament.

18. Under the Indian Constitution it is necessary to be a member of a house after 6 months of becoming a minister. In what way should a minister become a member of the house ?

(Article 75 (5))

(A) By nomination      

(B) By election      

(C) Either by election or nomination     

(D) None of the above

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19. Who is the highest law officer of India under Article 76 of the Constitution of India ?

(A) The Solicitor General of India

(B) The Secretary General of the Dept. of Law in Centre

(C) The Attorney General of India

(D) The Vice-President of India

24. Choose the correct alternative :

      The President of India is elected by the electoral college. The electoral college consists of –

(Article 54)

(A) (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and

      (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

(B) (a) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament, and

      (b) all the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

(C) (a) the elected members of the Lok Sabha,

      (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies.

(D) (a) the members of the Rajya Sabha,

      (b) the members of the Legislative Assemblies.

28. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term consisting of how many years ?

(A) 3 years      

(B) 4 years     

(C) 5 years      

(D) 6 years

29. How is the Chief Minister of a State appointed in India ?

(A) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor.

(B) The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Speaker.

(C) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Chief Justice of the State.

(D) The Chief Minister is appointed by the majority political party in the Legislative Assembly of the State.

33. Who chooses the representatives of the state in the Rajya Sabha ?

(A) Chief Minister of the State

(B) Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly

(C) Governor

(D) President

37. If the post of both the President and the Vice President of India falls vacant who discharges the functions of the President till the new incumbent is elected ?

(A) The Prime Minister of India

(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(C) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India

(D) The Attorney General of India

40. During the Proclamation of Emergency the term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for a period not exceeding

(A) 2 years       

(B) 1 year     

(C) 1.5 years      

(D) depends on the discretion of the President of India.

41. How many seats are reserved for women at all levels in the Panchayati Raj System in India ?

(A) 1/2 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions.

(B) 1/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj and 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all levels of Panchayati Raj institutions.

(C) 1/4 of offices of Chairperson of Panchayati Raj institutions.

(D) 2/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj institutions.

42. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or Council of States ?

(A) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

(B) The leader of the majority party in the Rajya Sabha.

(C) The leader of the opposition party in the Rajya Sabha.

(D) The person elected from among the elected members of the Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of members present and voting.

43. As per the Constitution of India how many members are elected in the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories ?

(A) 20      

(B) 22      

(C) 30      

(D) 35

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48. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees consist exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha ?

(A) The Public Accounts Committee.

(B) The Estimates Committee.

(C) The Committee of Public Undertakings.

(D) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

49. Which Article of the Constitution of India say that there shall be a President of India ?

(A) Art 61      

(B) Art 62      

(C) Art 74       

(D) Art 52

53. Choose the correct alternative :

      Art. 368 deals with the Constitution amending bills.

(A) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

(B) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Prior recommendation of the President is not required.

(C) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.

(D) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be introduced only in a joint sitting of Parliament after receiving the assent of the President.

55. Fill in the blank :

      A Bill cannot become an Act of Parliament in India, unless and until ______.

(A) it is passed by the Lok Sabha

(B) it is passed by the Rajya Sabha

(C) it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(D) the President of India gives his assent to the Bill

58. The Provision of Declaration of National Emergency is mentioned in which of the following Article ?

(A) Article 352      

(B) Article 356     

(C) Article 360     

(D) Article 365

60. Choose the correct option :

(A) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

(B) A Money Bill may be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.

(C) A Money Bill may be introduced in both Houses of Parliament.

(D) A Money Bill cannot be endorsed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

62. Choose the correct alternative :

(A) The Lok Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

(B) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is not votable in either House of Parliament.

(C) The expenditure that is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India is votable in either House of Parliament.

(D) The Rajya Sabha alone may vote on expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

65. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution ?

(A) Swaran Singh Committee

(B) Narasimhan Committee

(C) Raghavan Committee

(D) Malhotra Committee

66. The Head of the Executive in all States is the Governor of the State. How is he appointed ?

(Article 165)

(A) The Governor is elected by the people of the State on the basis of adult suffrage.

(B) The Governor is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.

(C) The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

(D) The Governor is appointed by an electoral college like the President of India.

67. A motion of no confidence against the Government can be introduced in

(A) Rajya Sabha     

(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha     

(C) Lok Sabha      

(D) Neither (A) nor (C)

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68. As per the Constitution of India, what is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha ?

(after 104th Amendment)

(A) 530      

(B) 540     

(C) 550      

(D) 552

69. What is the name of the motion to draw the attention of the Lok Sabha to a recent matter of urgent public importance ? If admitted it leads to setting aside the normal business of the House for discussing a definite matter of urgent public importance.

(A) Privilege Motion    

(B) No Confidence Motion    

(C) Calling Attention Motion      

(D) Adjournment Motion

70. According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha must meet at least how many times ?

(A) Three times each year with no more than four months between sessions.

(B) At least once a year.

(C) Four times each year.

(D) Twice a year with no more than six months between sessions.

71. Who may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State under the Indian Constitution ?

(Article 169)

(A) Parliament may by law abolish a Legislative Council in a State after the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect.

(B) The State Legislative Assembly may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.

(C) The Rajya Sabha may by a resolution provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.

(D) The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State.

72. Which Constitutional Amendment Act discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and State legislatures ?

(A) 104th Amendment Act.  

(B) 103rd Amendment Act.  

(C) 102nd Amendment Act.  

(D) 101st Amendment Act.

75. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) The President is the head of military forces in India.

(B) The President can appoint a Commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs and STs.

(C) The President can declare any area as a Scheduled Area.

(D) The President of India chooses the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

77. Choose the correct option :

      India has adopted the Parliamentary form of democracy also called the Westminister model. The Parliament consists of

(A) the President and the Lok Sabha

(B) the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(C) the President and the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(D) the Lok Sabha only

79. When can the Parliament in India make a law on a matter enumerated in the ‘State list’ ?

(A) When a joint sitting of Parliament passes a resolution to that effect.

(B) When the Lok Sabha by a 2/3rds majority of members present and voting passes a resolution saying that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.

(C) When both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha separately passes a resolution that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest.

(D) When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that such legislation is in the national interest.

80. Choose the number of representatives of the Rajya Sabha from the States and the Union Territories :

(A) 238      

(B) 212      

(C) 200     

(D) 250

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81. The Government of India revoked the special status, or limited autonomy granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu and Kashmir – when ?

(A) August, 2019     

(B) September, 2019     

(C) October, 2019    

(D) November, 2019

82. Fill in the blank :

      According to Article _____ ‘Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this Article’.

(A) 365     

(B) 366      

(C) 367      

(D) 368

85. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister in India ?

(Article 74)

(A) Universal adult suffrage   

(B) Federalism    

(C) Representative legislature     

(D) Parliamentary Democracy

87. Which Amendment introduced a national Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India from July, 2017 ?

(A) 100th Amendment Act   

(B) 101st Amendment Act    

(C) 102nd Amendment Act  

(D) 103rd Amendment Act

88. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament is appointed by the

(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(B) Prime Minister of India.

(C) President of India.

(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

91. Choose the most appropriate alternative :

      Parliamentary Government is also known

(A) Responsible Government

(B) Cabinet Government 

(C) Westminister forms of Government 

(D) All of the above

95. Fill in the blank :

      The Constitutional position of the President of India is comparable to ______ .

(A) The US President      

(B) The British Monarch     

(C) The French President      

(D) The Russian President

99. Fill in the blank :

      Impeachment of the President of India can be initiated _______.

(A) only in the Lok Sabha

(B) only in the Rajya Sabha

(C) in either House of Parliament

(D) in the Supreme Court

110. The Panchayat system was introduced after this Amendment of the Constitution :

(A) 65th Amendment    

(B) 68th Amendment     

(C) 72nd Amendment      

(D) 73rd Amendment

138. The Panchayat system is a

(A) two tier system     

(B) three tier system      

(C) four tier system     

(D) five tier system

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WBCS Main Question Paper – 2019

1. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is

(A) the President of India

(B) the Vice-President of India

(C) the Speaker of the House of the People

(D) None of the above

 

2. In the context of qualifications for contesting Presidential elections in India, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) He should be a citizen of India.

(B) He should not hold office of profit.

(C) He should be qualified to be elected to the House of the People.

(D) He should be aged 30

 

26. A resolution ratifying a Proclamation of Emergency requires to be passed

(A) by either House of Parliament.

(B) by Lok Sabha.

(C) by both Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.

(D) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings With majority of total membership of each House and by majority of net less than 2/3rd of members present and voting.

 

27. The Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three Lists in respect of   

(Article 239, Part VII)

(A) Backward areas

(B) Hill areas

(C) Scheduled areas

(D) Union Territories

 

29. Judicial review of proclamation under Article 356 would lie on any one of the following grounds:

(A) The proclamation has been made upon the consideration which is extraneous or irrelevant.

(B) Exercise of the power under Article 356 is malafide.

(C) A statutory order which lacks bona fide characteristics.

(D) All of the above

 

30. Which one of the following is no longer considered an adequate ground for the Issue of Proclamation of Emergency?

(A) Armed rebellion

(B) External aggression

(C) Internal disturbance

(D) War

 

31. A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can be done by

(7th Schedule)

(A) the Union Government

(B) the States by themselves

(C) amending the Constitution

(D) None of the above

 

32. The Constitution reserves the residuary powers in the 

(Article 248)

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(C) Union

(D) States

 

33. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in

(A) Article 156

(B) Article 254

(C) Article 300

(D) Entry 42, List III

 

34. The Union Government can assign any function to the States

(A) on the recommendation of the Parliament.

(B) on the directive of the President.

(C) on its own discretion.

(D) with the consent of the concerned State Government.

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35. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on

(A) criminal law and procedure

(B) economic and social planning

(C) marriage, contracts and torts

(D) All of the above

 

36. Which of the following is not true?

(A) Parliament has exclusive power to make law on any matter in the Union List.

(B) Parliament and State Legislatures have power to make law on any matter in the Concurrent List.

(C) In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make law on the subject given in the Union List.

(D) Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List in certain circumstances.

 

37. A legislation enacted by a State Legislature falls in the category of legislation.

(A) autonomous

(B) delegated

(C) subordinate

(D) supreme

 

76. The Executive Power of the State is vested with

(A) People of the State

(B) Chief Minister of the State

(C) Governor of the State

(D) State Legislature

 

77. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected?

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) Leader of the majority party in the Parliament

(C) Senior-most amongst the Governors of States

(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

78. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) constituent power

(B) executive power

(C) judicial power

(D) legislative power

 

79. Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred   

(Article 61)

(A) only in the Council of States

(B) only in the House of the People

(C) in either House of the Parliament

(D) only in joint session of the Parliament

 

80. The Governor can be removed from the office   

(Article 156)

(A) by the President at his pleasure.

(B) by impeachment in Parliament.

(C) on the advice of the Chief Minister.

(D) on a resolution passed by two-third majority in the State Legislative Assembly.

 

81. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to

(A) Consolidated Fund of India

(B) Contingency Fund of India

(C) Consolidated Fund of the State

(D) (A) and (C) in equal proportion

 

82. Who among the following is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?   

(Article 143 – advisory jurisdiction)

(A) The President of India

(B) The Governor of a State

(C) The Prime Minister of India

(D) All of the above

 

83. Rajya Sabha has a term of

(A) five years

(B) six years

(C) ten years

(D) it is a permanent body in which one-third of the members retire after every second year

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84. The Parliament of India consists of

(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha

(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the Prime Minister

 

85. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of

(A) fourteen days

(B) one month

(C) three months

(D) six months

 

86. Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution deal with

(A) Election Commission

(B) Inter-State Commerce Commission

(C) Legislative Councils

(D) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor

 

87. The Council of Ministers at the Union remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of   
(Article 75)

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Parliament

(C) President

(D) Prime Minister

 

88. The President nominates Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 5

(D) 7

 

89. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is

(A) 25

(B) 50

(C) 100

(D) 126

 

90. Which of these Houses is presided over by a non-Member?

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha

(C) Vidhan Sabha

(D) All of the above

 

91. A person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for the maximum period of

(A) one month

(B) three months

(C) six months

(D) one year

 

92. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of   

(Article 169)

(A) the State Legislative Assembly

(B) the Governor

(C) the President

(D) None of the above

 

93. Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken by the

(A) Parliamentary Secretary

(B) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Speaker

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94. On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill having been passed by both Houses of the Parliament, the President

(A) may give his assent.

(B) may withhold his assent.

(C) may return the Bill for reconsideration.

(D) shall give his assent.

 

97. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People?

(A) Speaker

(B) Prime Minister

(C) President

(D) Council of Ministers

 

98. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of each House of the Parliament?

(A) Three months

(B) Six months

(C) Nine months

(D) One year

 

99. Which provision of the Constitution gives the Governor of a State power to grant pardon in certain cases?

(A) Article 151

(B) Article 155

(C) Article 161

(D) Article 165

 

100. Which provision of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?

(A) Article 258

(B) Article 260

(C) Article 262

(D) Article 264

 

101. A Constitutional Amendment shall also be ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolution if it is meant to make any change

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Directive Principles

(C) Fundamental Duties

(D) Special Provisions

 

106. Which of the following Amendments added anti-defection provisions in the Constitution?

(A) 41st Amendment

(B) 52nd Amendment(1985)

(C) 43rd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

 

111. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for

(A) 3 years

(B) 4 years

(C) 5 years, unless dissolved earlier

(D) co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly

 

112. Election to the Gram Panchayats are

(A) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise

(B) by indirect method

(C) by Legislature of the States

(D) None of the above

 

113. A Union Territory is administered by

(A) the Governor of the territory.

(B) the President of India directly.

(C) the President of India through an administrator appointed by him called the Lieutenant Governor.

(D) the Chief Minister of the territory and his Council of Ministers.

 

116. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with

(A) defections

(B) the Election Commission

(C) the Finance Commission

(D) Other Backward Classes

 

117. Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates?

(A) Article 110

(B) Article 111

(C) Article 113

(D) Article 114

 

118. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?

(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(B) President

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

 

 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2018

53. The largest committee of Parliament of India is

a) Public Accounts Committee

b) Estimates Committee

c) Committee on Public Undertaking

d) Joint Parliamentary Committee

 

77. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?

a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

c) Attorney General of India

d) Chairman of the UPSC

 

79. The Parliament of India consists of

a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha

c) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha

d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

 

80. Total strength of the Council of States consists of

a) 260 members

b) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President

c) 305 members

d) 300 members representing States and Union Territories

 

81. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by

a) Direct elections

b) Indirect elections

c) the system of proportional representation

d) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote

 

82. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with

a) Election Commission

b) Parliament

c) State Legislatures

d) President

 

83. Rajya Sabha can without withhold Money Bills for a period of

a) 14 days

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) None of the above

 

84. Who among the following has a right to speak or otherwise participate in the proceedings of either House or in any joint sitting of the parliament without voting right?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Chief Election Commissioner

c) Attorney General of India

d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

 

85. Prorogation of a House means

a) a House has been brought in session

b) the session of the House has been terminated

c) the House itself stands terminated

d) None of the above

 

86. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister

a) the Cabinet may choose another leader

b) fresh general election must take place

c) the ministry is dissolved

d) President’s decision

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88. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of

a) President

b) Governor

c) State Legislative Assembly

d) None of the above

 

89. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be

(104th amendment, Rajya Sabha – 12)

a) 10

b) 12

c) 14

d) 20

 

90. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President   

a) may return the Bill for reconsideration

b) shall give his assent

c) may give his assent

d) may without his assent

 

97. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States?

a) 520

b) 530

c) 540

d) 550

 

140. The President of India nominates

a) Chief Election Commissioner

b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

c) Chief Justice of India

d) All of the above

 

141. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States

a) the President of India

b) the speaker of Lok Sabha

c) the Vice-President

d) None of the above

 

51. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with

a) the Finance Commission

b) the Election Commission

c) Other Backward Classes

d) defections

 

72. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in

a) Article 156

b) Article 254

c) Article 300

d) Entry 42, List III

 

95. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?

a) Article 258

b) Article 260

c) Article 262

d) Article 264

 

73. The Central Government can issue direction to the States with regard to

I. Union list

II. State List

III. Concurrent List

a) I

b) II and III

c) I and III

d) I, II and III

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87. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times?   

(Article 356)

a) National Emergency

b) President Rule in a State

c) Financial Emergency

d) All three, equal number of times

 

98. Then the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?

a) The President

b) The Chief Justice of India

c) The Prime Minister

d) The Council of Ministers

 

99. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the house?

a) 30 days

b) 45 days

c) 60 days

d) There is no time period

 

143. Power of the Governor to grant pardon, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in

a) Article 159

b) Article 161

c) Article 162

d) Article 163

 

144. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till the new President is elected?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

c) Seniormost Governor

d) Leader of the majority party

 

145. In the performance of his duties in exercise of his powers, the Governor

a) is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha

b) is answerable in the court of law

c) is not answerable to the court of law

d) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha

 

146. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of   

(max 3 years)

a) six months

b) nine months

c) one year

d) two years

 

147. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a   

(Article 123)

a) Constituent power

b) Legislative power

c) Executive power

d) Quasi-judicial power

 

148. The President of India has power to

a) summon each House of Parliament

b) dissolve the Houses or either House of Parliament

c) prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament

d) Dissolve the Lok Sabha only

 

149. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred   

(Article 61)

a) only in the Council of States

b) only in the House of the People

c) only in joint session of Parliament

d) by either House of Parliament

 

150. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled

a) in the Supreme Court

b) in the Parliament

c) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts

d) in the Election Commission

 

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WBCS Main Question Paper – 2017

1. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List :

(A) When a party enjoys ⅔rd majority in the House.

(B) By the consent of the legislature of the State concerned.

(C) When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by ⅔rd majority.

(D) With the consent of the President and Chief Justice of India.

 

2. A ‘No-confidence Motion’ in the Lok Sabha can be introduced by the support of at least

(A) 10% of the Lok Sabha members.

(B) 50% of the Lok Sabha members.

(C) By all the opposition members.

(D) By any single member of the Lok Sabha.

 

12. Seats to Lok Sabha are not reserved for

(A) Schedule Castes

(B) Schedule Tribes 

(C) Schedule Tribes in Autonomous Districts of Assam

(D) Anglo-Indian

 

8. Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with

(A) the Finance Commission     

(B) the Election Commission      

(C) defections 

(D) Other Backward Classes

 

9. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?

(A) Prime Minister     

(B) President     

(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha      

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

 

16. Election to the Gram Panchayats are

(A) by indirect method

(B) by legislatures of the State

(C) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise

(D) by Council of Ministers

 

20. The State List contains

(Initially 66, 42nd Amendment)

(A) 96 subjects      

(B) 106 subjects       

(C) 61 subjects

(D) 79 subjects

 

22. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in

(A) Article 254

(B)  Article 300     

(C) Entry 42, List III    

(D) Article 156

 

30. Amendment of the Constitution of India are made by exercise of

(A) Constitutional power of the Parliament

(B) Inherent power of the Parliament

(C) Legislative power of the Parliament

(D) Constituent power of the Parliament

 

31. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law appears in

(A) Article 246

(B) Article 265

(C) Article 266

(D) Article 268

32. How many amendments of the constitution have been made till date ?

(A) 99      

(B) 100       

(C) 101      

(D) 102

 

33. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following constitutional authorities   

(Article 72 & 161)

(A) President

(B) President and Governor of a state

(C) Governor

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India

 

36. Which of the following pair of articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India ?

(A) Article 60 & Article 61

(B) Article 62 & Article 63

(C) Article 99 & Article 100

(D) Article 72 & Article 73

 

45. Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature ?

(A) Article 206     

(B) Article 208       

(C) Article 213

(D) Article 212

 

46. The Constitution Amendment Bills are initiated in

(A) Lok Sabha      

(B) Rajya Sabha       

(C) Either House

(D) Rajya Sabha with prior approval from Lok Sabha

 

48. The Certificate to a Money Bill is signed by

(A) The Prime Minister of India

(B) The Leader of Opposition of the House of the People

(C) The Finance Minister of India

(D) The Speaker of the House of the People

 

49. The Freedom of Speech of a Member of Parliament during the sojourn of Session is  (Article 105)

(A) almost absolute

(B) subject to restriction of Fundamental Right

(C) is regulated by the Parliament itself

(D) is similar to that of an advocate acting on behalf of his client

 

64. In the Election of the President, each Member of the Electoral College has

(A) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates

(B) one vote as many votes there are candidates

(C) one vote with particular value attached to it

(D) one vote

 

65. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) Executive power      

(B) Legislative power

(C) Constituent power    

(D) Quasi-judicial power

 

66. The term of the office of Vice President is

(A) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office.

(B) five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

(C) five years from the date of his election is announced.

(D) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.

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67. Give correct response to :

(A) The President of India can seek re-election as many times under the Letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms.

(B) The President of India is ineligible for re-election.

(C) The President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three times.

(D) The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he desires.

 

68. Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true regarding ‘Inter State Council‘ ? 

(Article 263)

(A) It is required to meet at least thrice every year.

(B) It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India.

(C) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the Consensus.

(D) Decision on all questions are required to be taken in Consensus.

 

71. Which among the following states has two Houses i.e. Legislative Assembly and legislative council:

(A) Assam      

(B) West Bengal      

(C) Arunachal Pradesh    

(D) Bihar

 

72. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands today deals with

(A) power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution.

(B) authority of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.

(C) procedure for Amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the Parliament.

(D) passing and Ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature.

 

76. List I – Union List in Seventh schedule contain how many items ?

(A) 76      

(B) 87      

(C) 97

(D) 99

 

77. Minimum how many days’ notice is required to move the resolution to remove the deputy Chairman of the Council of States ?

(A) 10 days      

(B) 14 days

(C) 20 days    

(D) 30 days

 

79. The President nominates ____ Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.

(A) 5      

(B) 1       

(C) 2

(D) 7

 

80. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister      

(C) Parliament      

(D) Chief Minister

 

81. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for

(A) Financial Bills       

(B) Money Bills

(C) Both Money and Financial Bills       

(D) None of the above

 

82. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of

(A) 14 days

(B) 3 months      

(C) 6 months     

(D) None of the above

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83. Money Bill can be

(A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha

(B) Invalid by both the Houses

(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the bill

(D) None of the above

 

84. The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from amongst the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in

(A) Literature, science, art and social services

(B) Literature, art and law

(C) Literature, science and philosophy

(D) Literature, science and art

 

85. Council of States can be suspended during session

(A) By Prime Minister of India

(B) By Speaker of Lok Sabha

(C) By Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(D) None of the above

 

86. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India   

(Article 143)

(A) The President of India

(B) The Parliament of India

(C) The Governor of a State

(D) The Prime Minister of India

 

87. The Ordinance issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by

(A) President      

(B) Chief Minister       

(C) State Legislature

(D) None of the above

 

88. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to   

(Article 156)

(A) Chief Minister of the State

(B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly

(C) Prime Minister

(D) President

 

89. The power to grant pardons, reprieves or remissions of punishment under Article 72 in exercised by the President of India

(A) on the advice of the Prime Minister

(B) on his own as Head of the Union

(C) on the advice of Council of Ministers

(D) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet

 

90. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) Executive Power      

(B) Legislative Power

(C) Constituent Power     

(D) Quasi-Judicial Power

 

91. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period

(A) One year      

(B) Two years       

(C) Six months

(D) Nine months

 

92. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Leader of the majority party

(C) Chief Justice of India

(D) Senior most Governor

 

93. Who among the following holds his / her office at the pleasure of the President ?

(A) Chairman of UPSC

(B) Attorney General of India

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

 

94. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc. and to suspend, rent or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in

(A) Article 159       

(B) Article 161

(C) Article 162     

(D) Article 163

 

95. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any election petition shall be enquired into by

(A) Election Tribunal specifically constituted the purpose

(B) Supreme Court

(C) A Committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha

(D) Any High Court where the petition is moved

 

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India prescribes power to The President to issue Ordinance ?

(A) Article 123

(B) Article 72     

(C) Article 125     

(D) Article 254

 

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WBCS Main Question Paper – 2016

5. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution ?

(A) K.M. Nambiar

(B) K.M. Munshi       

(C) Dr. B.N. Rao       

(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

 

17. A member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as the President, but –

(Article 59(1))

(A) he has to resign his seat before contesting election.

(B) he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he enters upon his office as President

(C) he has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.

(D) a member of Parliament can contest but a member of State Legislature cannot contest.

 

18. In the election of the President

(A) the members of the State Legislative Assemblies enjoy more votes.

(B) the members of Parliament enjoy more votes.

(C) the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.

(D) None of the above

 

19. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate ordinances

(A) with the prior approval of the Parliament.

(B) with the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.

(C) with the consent of the Council of Ministers.

(D) on his own.

 

27. Under the Constitution it is —

(A) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers but is not obliged to follow it.

(B) obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.

(C) not obligatory for the President to seek or accent the advice of the Council of Ministers.

(D) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.

 

28. The President can declare emergency on ground of the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the states –

(A) only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the state to this effect.

(B) even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

(C) if the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.

(D) if the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the President.

 

29. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval- 

(44th amendment of 1978)

(A) within one month     

(B) within two months        

(C) within six months       

(D) within one year

 

30. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can be continued for

(A) a maximum period of three years.

(B) a maximum period of one year.

(C) an indefinite period.

(D) a maximum period of six months.

 

31. Which one of the following changes is not effected during the national emergency ?

(A) The Fundamental Rights of the citizens can be suspended.

(B) The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be modified.

(C) The President can issue directions to the state with regard to exercise of their powers.

(D) The President can act in his discretion the advice of the Council of Ministers.

 

51. Constitutionally the members of the Council of Ministers hold office-

(A) during the pleasure of the President.

(B) during the pleasure of the Speaker.

(C) during the pleasure of the Parliament.

(D) during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

52. In Indian states the tribal population is largest in-

(A) Assam and Tripura

(B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh

(D) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand

 

53. The maximum duration for which the Vice-President may officiate as President is-

(A) 1 year       

(B) 3 months        

(C) 1 months        

(D) 6 months

 

56. The Article 243F deals with-

(A) disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.

(B) every panchayat is continued for a period of 5 years.

(C) the panchayat can impose taxes and raise funds.

(D) some seats are reserved for SCs and STs in the states.

 

57. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction on which Fundamental Right ?

(A) Right to Freedom     

(B) Right against Exploitation       

(C) Right to Equality      

(D) Right to Religion

 

58. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha being held ?

(A.) December         

(B) June        

(C) October        

(D) August

 

59. In which year the metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative assembly ?

(69th Amendment Act.)

(A) 1990        

(B) 1992        

(C) 1993        

(D) 1994

 

60. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by the 80th Amendment act. ?

(A) Article 268        

(B) Article 269        

(C) Article 270        

(D) Article 272

 

63. The administrative relation between the center and the state are outlined in

(A) Articles 256-263       

(B) Articles 245-255      

(C) Articles 264-300       

(D) Articles 250-260

 

68. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as-

(A) Session        

(B) Closure      

(C) Resolution       

(D) De jure

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70. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) was fixed according to-

(A) 1981 Census       

(B) 1961 Census      

(C) 1951 Census       

(D) 1971 Census

 

71. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal Councils ?

(A) Government of India Act, 1935

(B) Indian Independence Act, 1947

(C) People’s Representation Act, 1950

(D) States Reorganization Act, 1956

 

76. The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with –

(A) the ordering of the general election of Parliament.

(B) the appointment of the Prime Minister.

(C) the appointment of the President.

(D) the formal notification of the President.

 

77. The time allowed to the members of a house to ask question to the minister concerned, is called-

(A) The Question Hour

(B) Zero Hour       

(C) Adjournment Motion       

(D) Call Attention Motion

 

81. “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”, which Article states this ?

(A) 75(2)

(B) 75(1)         

(C) 75(4)        

(D) 75(3)

 

82. The 59th Constitutional Amendment act was intended to –

(1988)

(A) Curb political defection

(B) Impose emergency in Punjab

(C) Prevent the practice of Sati

(D) Prevent communal disturbance

 

83. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly ?

(A) 40        

(B) 60       

(C) 50       

(D) 70

 

87. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State ?

(A) Article 155        

(B) Article 165      

(C) Article 175      

(D) Article 185

 

88. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit ?

(A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B) 10 from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(D) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha

 

91. What is Zero Hour ?

(A) When the proposals of the opposition are considered.

(B) When matters of utmost importance are raised.

(C) Interval between morning and afternoon sessions

(D) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.

 

95. The Constitution was amended for the first time in-

(A) 1961      

(B) 1971        

(C) 1951      

(D) 1981

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98. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha ?

(A) B.D.O        

(B) S.D.O        

(C) Gram Pradhan        

(D) Zilla Parishad

 

99. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368 ? 

(simple majority)

(A) Article 54       

(B) Article 55       

(C) Article 214

(D) Article 169

 

106. In which year was the first Panchayat election held ?  

(A) 1978   (1st in WB)

(B) 1980

(C) 1982

(D) 1981

 

107. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President during the Financial Emergency ?

(A) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable.

(B) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens.

(C) He can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants.

(D) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.

 

103. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed ?

(A) The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister

(B) He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers

(C) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers

(D) He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him

 

114. In the Council of States in India, all the States are not equally represented because

(A) the states that joined the Indian Union did not demand equal representation

(B) no independent states existed in India voluntarily seeking Union as in the USA.

(C) in the Constituent Assembly the spokesmen of States’ rights did not demand equal representation.

(D) the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.

 

115. Which among the following statements is not correct ?

(A) All money bills can originate in Lok Sabha only

(B) Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha only.

(C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.

(D) No confidence motion against Council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha.

 

120. The Governor of a state can —

(A) nominate one third members of Legislative Assembly

(B) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Assembly

(C) nominate one third members of Legislative Council

(D) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Council

 

124. The financial functions of the Council of Ministers include the right of—

(A) to certify whether a bill is a money bill or not.

(B) to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.

(C) to control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.

(D) to appoint Finance Commission from time to time.

 

125. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office –

(A) by the President at his discretion.

(B) by the Rajya Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.

(C) by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.

(D) by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote of no confidence against it.

 

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5.  _____ is the Chief Law Officer of India

(A) Advocate General        

(B) Attorney General

(C) Solicitor General       

(D) Law Minister

 

6.   Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency ?

(A) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety

(B) The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the consideration of the President

(C) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues

(D) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges

 

17.  How many subjects are found in the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution ?

(A) 52

(B) 62       

(C) 42       

(D) 72

 

18.  The residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament in India. The residuary provisions are found in which Article ?

(A) Art 245         

(B) Art 248

(C) Art 250      

(D) Art 251

 

19.  Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on items in the Union list. How many subjects are in the Union list at present ?

(A) 100

(B) 80        

(C) 87      

(D) 99

 

21.  Provisions regarding the Panchayats are incorporated in which articles ?

(A) Art 243 to Art 243 L       

(B) Art 243 to Art 243 M

(C) Art 243 to Art 244        

(D) Art 243 to Art 243 O

 

22.  The Panchayats are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution of India ?

(A) Part IX

(B) Part IX A        

(C) Part X      

(D) Part XI A

 

40.  Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions ?

(A) Assam         

(B) Nagaland

(C) Kerala         

(D) Tripura

 

42.  Article 368 very clearly lays down situations in which State Legislatures have to ratify a piece of Legislation before the Bill can receive the assent of the President. Choose the provision/provisions from the following that requires ratification by 1/2 of State Legislature

(A) Women’s reservation

(B) Amendment of provisions regarding Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(C) Fundamental Rights         

(D) Supreme court and High Court

 

48.  The emoluments, allowances, privileges of a Governor can be altered by : 

(2nd schedule)

(A) A constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament

(B) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament

(C) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament and ratified by one half of the State Legislatures

(D) By an ordinary legislative process that does not require constitutional Amendment

 

49.  Which of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?

(A) Agriculture       

(B) Extradition

(C) Public health, Sanitation, Hospitals      

(D) Libraries, Museums

50.  Consolidated Fund of India is provided in

(A) Art 234       

(B) Art 265        

(C) Art 239        

(D) Art 266

 

51.  The provisions regarding the Union and the State relations are contained in which part of the Constitution of India ?

(A) IX       

(B) X        

(C) XII        

(D) XI

 

52.  Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States ?

(A) First Schedule       

(B) Second Schedule       

(C) Sixth Schedule        

(D) Seventh Schedule

 

53.  Which article of the Constitution of India provides personal immunity to the head of the State for his official act from legal action including proceedings for contempt of Court ?

(A) Article 361

(B) Article 362        

(C) Article 368      

(D) Article 369

 

54.  Which schedule deals with the Anti-Defection Act ?

(A) Fifth      

(B) Eighth        

(C) Seventh         

(D) Tenth

 

55.  With reference to defections consider the following statements

1. An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat.

2. A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party any time

       Which statement is/are true ?

(A) 1 only       

(B) 2 only       

(C) Both 1 & 2        

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

 

57.  Defection to another party after election was made illegal by the : 

(1985)

(A) 52nd Amendment Act

(B) 53rd Amendment Act

(C) 54th amendment Act      

(D) 55th Amendment Act

 

58.  Choose the amendment to the Constitution of India that increased the elective strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545   

(1973)

(A) 31st Amendment Act

(B) 30th Amendment Act

(C) 25th Amendment Act       

(D) 21st Amendment Act

 

59.  The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister in India is

(A) 25 years

(B) 30 years        

(C) 35 years       

(D) 40 years

 

60.  Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority ?

(A) Ordinary Bill      

(B) Money Bill       

(C) Finance Bill        

(D) Constitution Amendment Bill

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71.  The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is

(A) 16       

(B) 18        

(C) 14

(D) 12

 

72.  Which of the following is correct ?

(A) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President of India

(B) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies

(C) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Vice-President

(D) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

 

73.  The Vice-President of India may be removed from his/her office by the :

(A) Legislative Assemblies of State      

(B) President        

(C) Prime Minister        

(D) Parliament

 

74.  Which of the following Articles states that the Vice-President is an ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States ?

(A) Article 60       

(B) Article 61       

(C) Article 62        

(D) Article 64

 

75.  Which Amendment to the Indian Constitution added that the President can sent the advice of the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration once and if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the president must accept it ?

(A) 44th Amendment

(B) 43rd Amendment        

(C) 42nd Amendment       

(D) 41st Amendment

 

76.  The manner of the election of the President in India is found in :

(A) Article 64         

(B) Article 55

(C) Article 56       

(D) Article 57

 

77.  Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the power of the president to grant pardons ?

(A) Article 72

(B) Article 73         

(C) Article 74      

(D) Article 75

 

78.  Which one of the following Articles empowers the president to appoint the Prime Minister of India ?

(A) Article 74        

(B) Article 75

(C) Article 76      

(D) Article 77

 

81. Under which constitutional Article newspapers do not have the right to publish reports of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of parliament or Legislative Assembly and Legislative Councils in India ?

(A) Article 361       

(B) Article 361 A

(C) Article 361 B       

(D) Article 361 C

 

91.  The minimum age for holding office in the Rajya Sabha is

(A) 18 years       

(B) 21 years       

(C) 25 years       

(D) 30 years

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92.  What is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution of India ?

(A) 552

(B) 540       

(C) 555      

(D) 550

 

93.  Choose the incorrect statement from the following :

(A) The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers

(B) Resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers

(C) The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers

(D) The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers

 

94.  What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre ?

(A) Maximum 50      

(B) No upper limit

(C) Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha

(D) Cannot exceed 10% of the total members of Lok Sabha

 

95.  The maximum number of Anglo Indian who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are

(A) 3       

(B) 2

(C) 5      

(D) 4

 

96.  Which of the statements below is/are correct ?

1. The Parliament of India consists of three parts, viz the President, the House of People and the Council of States

2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament

3. The Parliament is the Legislative organ of Union Government

(A) 1 only         

(B) 1 & 2 only      

(C) 1 & 3 only      

(D) All of the above

 

97.  Choose the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(A) Article 101       

(B) Article 108

(C) Article 133      

(D) Article 102

 

98.  In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?

(A) Oldest member of the House        

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Leader of the opposition

(D) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the speaker

 

99.  In the case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses of Parliament

(A) The Prime Minister intervenes       

(B) The President intervenes

(C) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the impasse

(D) A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened

 

100.  After the declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation of the emergency without approval by the Parliament ?

(A) One month        

(B) Two months

(C) Three months       

(D) Four months

 

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14.  The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of :

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(C) State Legislatures and Lok Sabha

(D) None of the above

 

15.  The President of India can nominate ____ members to the Lok Sabha and ___ members to the Rajya Sabha

(A) 12, 2

(B) 2, 12

(C) 2, 10       

(D) 10, 2

 

16.  Who among the following did not serve as the Vice President of India before becoming the President of India ?

(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma

 

17. Out of the following who served as the first Vice President of India ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad       

(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain      

(D) V. V, Giri

 

18.  In which article of the Constitution of India has the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha been provided ?

(A) Article 104        

(B) Article 108

(C) Article 133       

(D) Article 143

21.  Which among the following is the middle unit of Three Tier Panchayati Raj System ?

(A) Gram Panchayat        

(B) Panchayat Samiti  

(C) Zila Parishad       

(D) Gram Sabha

 

22.  Sarkaria Commission was set up in the year :

(central-state relation)

(A) 1982         

(B) 1983

(C) 1984        

(D) 1985

24.  Unlike that of the Lok Sabha what is the period of the Rajya Sabha ?

(A) 6 years        

(B) 5 years         

(C) It is a Permanent House

(D) 2 years

 

26.  The Lok Sabha was first constituted in :

(A) 1947        

(B) 1952

(C) 1950       

(D) 1951

 

27.  Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the state list ?

(A) Article 229         

(B) Article 249

(C) Article 239       

(D) Article 259

29.  The Anti-Defection Law was enacted in :

(A) 1985

(B) 1980       

(C) 1983        

(D) 1982

 

31.  Which one among the following is not stipulated in the Constitution of India ?

(A) Union Public Service Commission

(B) Election Commission of India

(C) Council of Ministers

(D) The Planning Commission

 

32.  Nagarpalika bill was first introduced in the Parliament during the Primeministership of 

(A) Rajiv Gandhi

(B) Narashimha Rao        

(C) V. P. Singh      

(D) Indira Gandhi

 

34.  Anti-Defection law was placed in :

(A) The Preamble

(B) The Fundamental Rights chapter in the Constitution

(C) 6th schedule of the Constitution

(D) 10th schedule of the Constitution

 

36.  Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?

(A) 370       

(B) 368

(C) 390       

(D) 376

 

37.  The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in :

(A) either House of the Parliament

(B) a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament

(C) the Lok Sabha alone

(D) the Rajya Sabha alone

 

41.  When a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, within what time he must return the Bill ?

(A) Three months      

(B) Six months        

(C) One year       

(D) There is no time limit

 

43.  Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India ?

(Union List – 47)

(A) Insurance

(B) Fisheries        

(C) Agriculture       

(D) Gambling

 

45.  Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of village Panchayats :

(A) Article 19       

(B) Article 21        

(C) Article 40

(D) Article 246

 

46.  Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Governments ?

(A) Corporation Tax     

(B) Customs Duty Tax        

(C) Sales Tax

(D) Income Tax

 

49.  How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution ?

(A) 2       

(B) 3 

(C) 4      

(D) 1

 

50.  The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to :

(A) The President of India

(B) The House of the People

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Rajya Sabha