judiciary questions of psc exam
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2022
11. In which of the following cases the Apex court held that, “Where there is a clash of two fundamental rights, the right which would advance the public morality or public interest, would alone be enforced through the process of court…”?
(A) Nandini v. Dani
(B) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(D) Mr. X v. Hospital Z
18. How long a person should have practiced in a High Court to be eligible to appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of India?
(A) 7 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 15 years
20. In which of the following cases it was held that “Right to Life does not include Right to Die”?
(A) Deena v. Union of India
(B) M. C. Mehta v. Union of India
(C) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(D) State of U.P. v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
21. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that forcing husband to get
separated from his parents, amounts to cruelty?
(A) Narendra v. K. Meena
(B) Zubeda Ahmed v. Fazlia Begum
(C) Suleha Julekha v. Md. Bismillah
(D) Anita Kushwaha v. Pushpa Sudan
24. Which of the following doctrines means “to stand by precedent and not to disturb the settle point of law”?
(A) Doctrine of stare decisis
(B) Doctrine of pith and substance
(C) Doctrine of prospective overruling
(D) Doctrine of colourable legislation
30. The Constitution gives the powers of superintendence over all sub-ordinate courts to the High Courts under Article
(A) 32
(B) 226
(C) 227
(D) 228
33. In which Landmark case the Supreme Court held that the Second marriage of Hindu man is invalid even if he converts to Islam before marriage?
(A) Daniel Latiffi v. Union Of India
(B) Sarla Mudgal v. Union Of India
(C) Roopa Hurrah v. Ashok Hurrah
(D) Ramchandra Saraswati v. Neena Bajpai
38. Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to
(A) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country.
(B) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution.
(C) Examine the Constitutional validity of the laws.
(D) Review its own judgment.
40. Which one of the following is known as Judges Transfer case?
(A) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
(B) S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
(C) In re Presidential Reference
(D) None of the above
42. In which Landmark case Fundamental Rights were considered as Inviolable part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India
(C) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
(D) Prem Singh v. State of Haryana
48. Which one of the following case is known as the “Fundamental Right” case?
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
(C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(D) D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
53. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court emphasized on right to Shelter as one of the fundamental human rights?
(A) R. S. Verma v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Chameli Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(C) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(D) Virender Gaur v. State of Haryana
61. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that, “if a body is an agency or
instrumentality of government, it may be an authority under Article 12.”?
(A) Ujjambai v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(B) R. D. Shetty v. The International Airport Authority of India
(C) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib
(D) Som Prakash v. Union of India
66. Supreme Court of India is a court of record under
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 129
(C) Article 136
(D) Article 141
69. How many High Courts are there at present in India?
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 27
76. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India unheld the right against solitary confinement?
(A) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(B) Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras
(C) M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Govind v. State
79. How many sanctioned judges are there in the Supreme Court of India?
(Cancel By PSC)
(A) 25
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 31
84. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is
(A) 60 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 70 years
86. The concept of Complete Justice is enshrined under
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 142
(D) Article 143
90. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India issued direction on playing national anthem in theatres and cinema halls?
(Cancel By PSC)
(A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
(B) Kedar Nath v. State of Bihar
(C) Ram Singh v. Union of India
(D) Shreya Vidyarthi v. Ashok Vidyarthi
94. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held “the right to access to drinking water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Article 21 to provide clean drinking water to its citizen”?
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(B) A. P. Pollution Control Board v. m. V. Nayadu
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(D) Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board v. Sri C. Kenchappa
95. Who was the Chief Justice of India when the Public Litigation is introduced to the Indian judicial system?
(A) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(B) Justice A. H. Ahmadi
(C) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(D) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2021
47. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court is contained in
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 129
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 136
99. Where is the permanent seat of Supreme Court of India?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) New Delhi
105. From which fund the salaries of the Judges of Supreme Court is drawn?
(Article 125)
(A) Consolidated Fund
(B) Grant-in-Aid
(C) Contingency Fund
(D) Public Accounts
107. The High Court has the power to issue writ under Article ______.
(A) 32
(B) 220
(C) 226
(D) 344
117. What is the age of retirement of a Judge of Supreme Court?
(A) 65 years
(B) 62 years
(C) 68 years
(D) 60 years
123. Judges of the Supreme Court of India can be removed by
(A) Executive order
(B) Impeachment
(C) Judicial order
(D) Bureaucracy
144. When was the Kesavananda Bharti. vs. State of Kerala took place?
(24 April, Supreme Court)
(A) 1973
(B) 1983
(C) 1963
(D) 1984
156. What is the full form of CrPC?
(1 April 1974)
(A) Character Procedure Code
(B) Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Criminal Penal Code
(D) Criminal Personal Code
158. The Supreme Court of India can give advice to the President of India under ________.
(A) Article 143
(B) Article 142
(C) Article 141
(D) Article 144
164. Who appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) The Governor of the concerned State
(C) The Chief Minister of the concerned State
(D) President of India
171. Which Act provided for the establishment of Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774?
(A) Carriers Act, 1865
(B) Coroners Act, 1871
(C) India Law Reports Act, 1875
(D) Regulating Act, 1773
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2020
14. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to deal with any dispute between the Centre and the State, the Centre and a State on the one side and another State on the other or between two or more States ……….?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
21. Choose the case in which the Supreme Court by a majority ruled that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution of India, but it could not alter or destroy ‘The basic structure’ of the Constitution.
(A) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(B) Golaknath Case, 1967
(C) Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(D) A. K. Gopalan Case, 1950
22. Fill in the blank :
The Supreme Court of India tenders legal advice to the President of India when ______ .
(Article 143)
(A) the Cabinet recommends it
(B) the Council of Ministers recommends it
(C) the President asks for it
(D) the Supreme Court wants to tender the advice
25. Which is the oldest High Court established in India in 1862 ?
(1 July)
(A) The Bombay High Court
(B) The Calcutta High Court
(C) The Madras High Court
(D) The Allahabad High Court
46. The qualifications for a person to be appointed as the Judge of the Supreme Court under Article 124(3) are
(A) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the Ministry of Law a distinguished jurist.
Has been a Judge of a High Court for at least five years, or
Has been an advocate of a High Court for five years.
(B) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.
Has been a Judge of a High Court for at least five years …, or
Has been an advocate of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least ten years.
(C) He must be a citizen of India.
Has been a Judge of the High Court for ten years
Has been an advocate of the High Court.
(D) He must be a citizen of India.
In the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist.
He must be a sitting judge of a High Court for ten years.
50. Which among the following is the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India ?
(A) The President
(B) The Council of Ministers
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Parliament
54. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?
(1st July, 1862)
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Orissa High Court
(C) Andhra Pradesh High Court
(D) Madras High Court
56. Till now how many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been removed from office through impeachment ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None
64. If a High Court judgement is issued in a state’s official language a translation in which language must also be made available ?
(Official Languages Act, 1963)
(A) Hindi
(B) Both Hindi and English
(C) Translation not required
(D) English
74. A judge of a High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by
(A) the Governor, if the state legislature passes a resolution to this effect by 2/3rd majority.
(B) the President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House of Parliament.
(C) the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court on the recommendation of the Parliament.
(D) the Chief Justice of the High Court on the recommendation of the State legislature.
84. Which is the 25th High Court in India ?
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Andhra Pradesh High Court
(C) Bombay High Court
(D) Calcutta High Court
92. Choose the correct statement :
(A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigation undertaken to secure public interest and demonstrates the availability of justice to socially disadvantaged parties and was introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Ayer. It is an extra judicious remedy and a part of judicial activism to enforce public interest and a vehicle to enforce rights.
(B) Only Supreme Court in India can entertain Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
(C) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(D) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India has not helped deal with major environmental grievances and has not helped victims who are handicapped by poverty, illiteracy, ignorance who have not benefited by the implementation of the laws enacted by the legislature for the benefits of the have nots.
96. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) The Supreme Court in India is the highest court in appeals.
(B) The power of ‘Judicial Review’ is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
(C) All doubts arising out of or in connection with the election of a President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final under the Constitution of India.
(D) The Supreme Court shall be a Court of Record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself according to the Constitution of India.
100. Who can extend the jurisdiction of a High Court ?
(Article 230)
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Supreme Court of India
(D) The Governor of the State
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2019
(A) Doctrine of eclipse
(B) Doctrine of prospective overruling
(C) Doctrine of severability
(D) None of the above
10. “Excessive reservation would be fraud on the Constitution of India” was observed by the Supreme Court in
(A) Ajit Singh v. State of Punjab
(B) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(C) Devdasan v. Union of India
(D) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
12. In which of the following cases the doctrine against arbitrariness was incorporated into equality before law by Justice Bhagwati?
(A) Air India v. Nargesh Mirza
(B) D. K. Bakshi v. Union of India
(C) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) Pradeep Jain v. Union of India
19. In which of the following cases was it observed that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Jagannath v. Union of India
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
21. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13?
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(D) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
25. “Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.” Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of
(A) In re Kerala Education Bill
(B) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(C) In re Berubari Union
(D) Keshavananda Bharti v. State Kerala
39. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. This statement epitomizes the doctrine of
(A) ancillary powers
(B) colourable legislation
(C) implied powers
(D) pith and substance
(A) original jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) writ jurisdiction
(D) advisory jurisdiction
(A) are fixed by the President of India.
(B) can never be reduced under any circumstances.
(C) can be reduced during their term of office.
(D) cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during financial emergency.
(A) High Court’s power of superintendence
(B) Judicial review
(C) powers of the Speaker
(D) election of the Vice President
43. Which
Article lays down that the laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on all Courts in India?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 142
(D) Article 143
(A) the Parliament by law
(B) the Parliament by resolution
(C) the President
(D) the President in consultation with Chief Justice of India
45. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court ruled that the reasons have to be communicated to the Legislature by the Government if the advice of the Public Service Commission has not been accepted ?
(A) Asha Kaul v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
(B) H. Mukherjee v. Union of India
(C) Jai Shankar Prasad v. State of Bihar
(D) Jagtar Sing v. Director, Central Bureau of Investigation
(A) in any High Court in India
(B) in the High Court from where he has retired
(C) in the Supreme Court
(D) All of the above
(A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(B) Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
(C) SaJJanSingh v. State of Rajasthan
(D) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(Article 247)
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Concerned State Legislature
(C) High Court of the concerned State
(D) Parliament
(Article 131)
(A) advisory Jurisdiction
(B) appellate jurisdiction
(C) original jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 317
(D) Article 318
charged expenditure – Article 112(3)
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Fund of Ministry of Law & Justice
(C) Fund of Ministry of Home Affairs
(D) Prime Minister’s Relief Fund
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2018
74. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. The doctrine relates to
a) implied powers
b) ancillary power
c) pith and substance
d) Colourable legislation
75. When the Supreme Court sits to determine any question involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution or for tendering its advise, the minimum number of judges to constitute the Bench should be
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 13
a) 58 years
b) 60 years
c) 62 years
d) 65 years
94. Disputes between States comes to the Supreme Court under
a) original jurisdiction
b) advisory jurisdiction
c) appellate jurisdiction
d) None of these
59. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution’?
a) In re Keshwananda Bharti
b) In re Golaknath case
c) In re Swarn Singh
d) In re Maneka Gandhi
92. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that primacy should be given to the opinion of other constitutional functions in the matter of appointment of High Court and Supreme Court judges
a) Keshvananda Bharti case
b) Special Courts Bills case
c) Transfer of Judges case
d) Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association v. Union of India
93. The doctrine of prospective overruling was first evolved by Chief Justice Subha Rao in
a) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
102. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S. R. Bommai case by
a) J. S. Verma, J
b) S. R. Pandian, J.
c) P. B. Sawant, J
d) A. M. Ahmadi, J
106. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13?
a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
b) Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
c) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
d) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
108. In which of the following cases, was it held that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and joinly aim at reasonableness and fairness?
a) Jagan Nath v. Union of India
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
d) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration
109. In which of the following cases was the new concept of equality under Article 14, i.e. protection against arbitrariness, propagated by Justice Bhagwati?
a) D. K. Bakshi v. Union of India
b) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
c) Pradeep Jain : Union of India
d) Air India v. Nargeesh Mirza
116. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights?
a) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar
b) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
c) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab
d) Nilabeti Behera v. State of Orissa
119. Arrange the decisions of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence:
(1) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(2) A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiv Kant Shukla
(3) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
Codes:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 2, 1
c) 2, 3, 1
d) 2, 1, 3
121. Which section of Preventive Detention Act, 1950, was declared ultra vires by the Supreme Court in case of A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras?
a) Section 11
b) Section 14
c) Section 17
d) Section 19
136. In which one of the following judgments, the Supreme Court found that “morality and law cannot be equated with each other”?
a) P. V. Narsimha Rao v. State
b) Common Cause v. Union of India
c) Bennett & Coleman Ltd v. Union of India
d) V. V. Shiva prasad v. K. Venkateswarlu
138. Which one of the following judgement is not related to the ‘doctrine of separation of powers’?
a) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
b) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
c) Union of India v. Sankalchand
d) Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu & Kashmir
139. “Article 74(1) is mandatory and therefore, the President cannot exercise the executive power without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers”, was observed by the Supreme Court in:
a) Samshar Singh v. State of Punjab
b) U. N. R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
142. ‘The
power of the President to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not judiciable on its merits. Only the area and scope of President’s power under Article 72 can be examined by the court.” This was held by the Supreme Court in
a) Kehar Singh v. Union of India
b) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh
c) Maru Ram v. Union of India
d) All of the above
(Article 143)
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Government of a State
d) The Parliament of India
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2017
(A) 1960’s
(B) 1980’s
(C) 1990’s
(D) 1970’s
17. The first Constitutional Amendment was challenged in the case
(A) Sankari Prasad v. UOI
(B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(C) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
21. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land. It is preserved by
(A) The Cabinet
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Constituent Assembly
(D) The Parliament
(Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act.)
(A) The original Constitution
(B) Parliament in 1958
(C) Parliament in 1977
(D) Parliament in 1986
24. Who expressed the view that ‘Supreme Court of India has more powers than any other Supreme Court in any part of the world’ ?
(A) Justice Khanna
(B) Dr. B.M. Rao
(C) K. M. Munshi
(D) A. Krishna Iyer
25. The Supreme Court struck down a part of the Preventive detention Act in the
(A) Gopalan case
(B) Golaknath case
(C) Ramesh Thappar case
(D) Kochumni case
26. Provision of Article 73 i.e. extent of executive power of the union confers upon the union which of the following phenomenon ? (A) Power, jurisdiction and authority.
(B) Jurisdiction, constituent authority and power.
(C) Right, authority and jurisdiction.
(D) Inherent power, authority and jurisdiction.
(A) exclusively by the Collegium of the Supreme Court of India
(B) by National Judicial Appointment Commission
(C) Prime Minister in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
(D) by Parliament in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(Article 124(3))
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) In the District Court
(D) Special Court
44. Who is to decide whether any matter is a matter where the Governor has to act in his discretion ?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Supreme Court of India
(C) The High Court of the concerned state
(D) The Governor
(A) All Directive Principles supersede fundamental rights
(B) No Directive Principles can supersede the fundamental rights
(C) The Directive Principles contained in Article 39(a) supersede the fundamental rights
(D) The Directive Principles contained in Article 39(b), (c) supersede the fundamental rights
98. ‘Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes. In which of the cases was this principle enunciated
(A) Motilal v. State of UP
(B) Civil Rights Committee v. UOI
(C) Head Masters v. UOI
(D) Magan Bhai v. UOI
(A) Section 121
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 307
(D) Section 366
41. The power to issue appropriate writs for enforcement of rights conferred by PART – III of the Constitution of India may be given to any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction by (Article 32(3))
(A) exercise of legislative power of the Parliament
(B) promulgation of an Ordinance
(C) passing a resolution in both the Houses
(D) parliament in consultation with the Supreme Court of India
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2016
(1971)
(A) 26th Amendment
(B) 28th Amendment
(C) 30th Amendment
(D) 32nd Amendment
14. The concept of the basic structure of the constitution propounded in the Keshavanand Bharati case was further elaborated and strengthened in-
(A) Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain case
(B) Minerva Mills case
(C) Both (A) And (B)
(D) None of the Above
(A) review its own judgment
(B) review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(C) examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(D) undertake periodic review of the constitution.
94. Supreme Court of India has given a landmark guideline spelled out the restrictions on the Union Government’s power to dismiss a state government as per the Article 356 of the Indian Constitution in which of the following case ?
(1994)
(A) Minerva Mills Case
(B) S. R. Bommai Case
(C) Sajjan Singh Case
(D) Golaknath Case
96. Which among the following statement is correct ?
(Article 128)
(A) There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
(B) There are provisions that a retired judge of Supreme Court and High Courts can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
(C) There are provisions that a retired judge of High Courts only can sit and act as judge of Supreme Court.
(D) None of the above.
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
(B) Doctrine of Waiver
(C) Doctrine of Severability
(D) Doctrine of Lapse
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2015
1. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitution Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be (Article 145(3))
(A) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) One-third of the total strength of the Court
(A) Is a Court of record and has a power to punish for its contempt
(B) Is the only highest Court of Appeal
(C) Is like House of Lords on its Judicial side
(D) Is in all respects like Supreme Court of USA
(Article 124(1))
(A) 26 Judges
(B) 26 Judges including the Chief Justice of India
(C) Chief Justice of India and 20 other Judges
(D) Chief Justice of India and 16 other Judges
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 317
(D) None of the above
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 134
(D) Article 136
37. To reduce the mounting arrears in High Courts and to secure the speedy disposal of service matters, revenue matters and certain other matters of special importance in the context of the socio-economic development and progress which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for administrative and other tribunals for dealing with the above matter ? (A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
(A) Part IX Chapter 2
(B) Part VII Chapter 6
(C) Part V Chapter 3
(D) Part VI Chapter 5
44. Currently how many High Courts are there in India ? (A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 25 (in 2019)
(D) 29
45. Who is appointed as the Chief Justice of India ?
(A) The President appoints the Chief Justice of India upon the advice of the Union Cabinet
(B) The senior most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India
(C) The panel of judges of Supreme Court elect a Chief Justice from among themselves
(D) The Chief Justice of India is elected by the Lok Sabha
(A) Judge of one High Court or more continuously for at least 5 years
(B) An advocate of High Court for at least 10 years
(C) Above 40 years of age
(D) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President
80. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold in a majority judgment that the Fundamental Rights could not by their very nature be subject to amendment by Parliament ?
(A) Minerva Mills Case 1980
(B) Golaknath Case 1967
(C) Keshavananda Bharati Case 1973
(D) Champakam Dorairajan Case 1951
WBCS Main Question Paper – 2014
13. The verdict by the Supreme Court that the original (basic) structure of the Constitution cannot be amended was given in which case ?
(A) Sajjan Singh case
(B) Minerva Mills case
(C) Golak Nath’s case
(D) Keshvananda Bharati case
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Supreme Court of India
(D The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
33. Identify the correct chronological order of the following landmark judgments by the Supreme Court :
(i) Minerva Mills case
(ii) Golak Nath case
(iii) A. K. Gopalan case
(iv) Ninth Schedule of the Constitution case
(A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
35. Arrange the following in chronological order and use the codes given below :
(i) Keshavananda Bharati case
(ii) Golaknath case
(iii) Minerva Mills case
(iv) Sajjan Singh case Codes
(A) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
39. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chennai
(D) Odisha
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Council of Ministers of the State
(D) Advocate General of the State
